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Old Dec 22nd, 2017, 10:15 AM
  #41  
 
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I think the law does have to do with where the owner is and I believe MmePerdu is correct. Because if the owner is there, and renting aroom, they are in residence. So if that is all they did, they would be in residence 365 days a year. And one room isn't their "residence", which the law refers to. In fact, renting a room in your house is just being a B&B. I have read ALUR at various times, I'm not sure if all of it or not (A lot is not related to vacation apts), but saw no mention of just renting rooms when they discussion of 120 days is made, it refers to whether the owner is in residence or not.

If your are not in residence, then I would't call it renting a roomn, but an apt.

Now whether your landlord etc allows this is an entirely different matter, I presume they could write whatever contracts that wanted as to what they allow, even pre-ALUR.

This is an article by DGE which clearly distinguishes chambres d'hote from renting an entire vacation apt regarding these laws, which appear to apply only when the owners is not present during the stay.
https://www.entreprises.gouv.fr/tour...ubles-tourisme
Christina is offline  
Old Dec 22nd, 2017, 12:33 PM
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I have followed the vacation rental developments very closely for the last 3 to 4 years and I will agree that ALUR is an all-encompassing law which covers every aspect of real estate purchasing, owning, renting, and selling. Only a very small portion of ALUR has to do with vacation rentals but it is that small portion which has the greatest impact upon readers and contributors here on the France forum.

Christina - specifically, which part of your link leads you to the conclusion that someone can rent a room(s) in his primary residence without a 120 day restriction? I don´t see anything distinguishing that clearly. The only reference I find is that those operating chambres d´hôtes and who have made an application at town hall under the article L.324-4 of the tourism code (and I am not familiar with that specific code) are exempt from the requirement to display, in advertising, the 13 digit registration number.

Is it your contention that someone renting a room in his home, whether he be there or not, has fully met the requirements to operate legally as a chambre d´hôte? I really do not see the connection. How did you arrive at your conclusion?
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Old Dec 24th, 2017, 09:02 AM
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A person who resides in his apartment - may not have the blessing of his landlord to sub-let. If it is truly the property owner, he should have already applied for the 13-digit registration number.

Sarastro is correct - you need a license for a chambre d'hote from the City. There are strict regulations for that, too.
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